HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a recent smoking cessation program. Which outcome indicates success?
- A. increased attendance at support group meetings
- B. reduced number of cigarettes smoked per day
- C. higher sales of nicotine replacement products
- D. lower relapse rate among participants
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: lower relapse rate among participants. A lower relapse rate indicates that participants are successfully quitting smoking and maintaining their cessation, which is the ultimate goal of a smoking cessation program. Increased attendance at support group meetings (choice A) may demonstrate engagement but does not necessarily indicate successful smoking cessation. Similarly, higher sales of nicotine replacement products (choice C) may reflect increased product usage but not necessarily successful smoking cessation. While reducing the number of cigarettes smoked per day (choice B) is a positive change, it does not guarantee successful smoking cessation or long-term abstinence.
2. In a community clinic where a recent case of tuberculosis (TB) has been diagnosed, which client who attended the clinic is at the highest risk for presenting with TB?
- A. a young adult who works as a daycare worker
- B. an adult who works in a corporate office
- C. an adolescent who attends the community high school
- D. an adult with a history of alcoholism and homelessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Individuals who are homeless and have a history of alcoholism are at the highest risk for presenting with TB in this scenario. Homeless individuals often live in crowded conditions with poor ventilation, increasing the likelihood of TB transmission. Additionally, alcoholism can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to developing TB. The other options, such as a daycare worker, an office worker, or a high school student, do not inherently carry the same level of risk factors for TB transmission as being homeless with a history of alcoholism.
3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.
- B. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
- C. Tremors.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of diabetes mellitus admitted with hypoglycemia, the finding that requires immediate intervention is tremors. Tremors can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which needs prompt attention to prevent complications such as seizures or loss of consciousness. While a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is low, the presence of tremors signifies a more urgent situation. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute and diaphoresis are common physiological responses to hypoglycemia and do not necessarily require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms are present.
4. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
- A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
- B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
- C. Check for signs of infection.
- D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.
5. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?
- A. Pindolol (Visken)
- B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
- C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
- D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.
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