Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up visit, a client with diabetes reports difficulty maintaining a healthy diet. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Provide the client with meal planning resources
• B. Explore the client's dietary habits and challenges
• C. Refer the client to a nutritionist
• D. Educate the client on the importance of a healthy diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with diabetes reports difficulty in maintaining a healthy diet, the initial action should be to explore the client's dietary habits and challenges. By doing so, the nurse can identify specific issues and barriers the client faces, which is crucial in developing a personalized and effective intervention plan. Providing meal planning resources (Choice A) can be beneficial later but should come after understanding the client's unique situation. Referring the client to a nutritionist (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should follow an assessment of the client's current challenges. Simply educating the client on the importance of a healthy diet (Choice D) does not address the specific difficulties the client is facing and may not lead to sustainable behavior change.

2. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Absence of breath sounds.
• C. Expiratory wheezes.
• D. Productive cough with green sputum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of breath sounds. This finding can indicate a pneumothorax or severe asthma exacerbation, both of which require immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent further complications. Increased respiratory rate (choice A) is common in asthma exacerbations but may not always necessitate immediate intervention. Expiratory wheezes (choice C) are typical in asthma and may not always indicate a critical condition. A productive cough with green sputum (choice D) suggests a possible respiratory infection but does not warrant immediate intervention as much as the absence of breath sounds.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Nausea and vomiting.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.

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