Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

2. During a prenatal class for expectant mothers, what topic should be included to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby?

• A. importance of taking prenatal vitamins
• B. how to handle common discomforts of pregnancy
• C. preparing for labor and delivery
• D. breastfeeding techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the importance of taking prenatal vitamins. Prenatal vitamins are crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby as they provide essential nutrients required for fetal development. While handling common discomforts of pregnancy (choice B) is important for maternal well-being, it does not directly impact the health of the baby. Preparing for labor and delivery (choice C) focuses more on the delivery process rather than the overall health of the mother and baby during pregnancy. Breastfeeding techniques (choice D) are relevant postpartum, not during the prenatal period, and do not directly impact the health of the baby during pregnancy.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

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