Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

2. An elderly client with limited mobility reports feeling isolated and lonely. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Arrange for regular visits from a home health aide
• B. Suggest the client join a local senior center
• C. Refer the client to a support group for seniors
• D. Recommend that the client engage in a new hobby

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest the client join a local senior center. Joining a local senior center provides the elderly client with opportunities for social interaction, engagement in activities, and access to support systems, which can significantly help alleviate feelings of isolation and loneliness. Regular visits from a home health aide (Choice A) may provide physical assistance but may not address the client's need for social connection. Referring the client to a support group for seniors (Choice C) is beneficial, but joining a senior center offers a wider range of activities and social opportunities. Recommending a new hobby (Choice D) may be helpful, but the priority should be addressing the client's immediate need for social interaction and support.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client with dysphagia. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
• B. Have the client drink a full glass of water with the medication.
• C. Administer the medication with a small amount of pudding.
• D. Place the medication at the back of the client's tongue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering oral medication to a client with dysphagia is to administer the medication with a small amount of pudding. This method helps prevent aspiration in clients with dysphagia by ensuring easier swallowing. Crushing the medication and mixing it with applesauce (Choice A) might alter the medication's efficacy. Having the client drink a full glass of water with the medication (Choice B) may not be suitable for a client with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Placing the medication at the back of the client's tongue (Choice D) can also lead to aspiration and is not recommended.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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