Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

2. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

3. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

4. The healthcare professional is providing education on healthy eating habits to a group of adolescents. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. lecturing about the dangers of unhealthy eating
• B. distributing pamphlets on healthy food choices
• C. involving the adolescents in meal planning and preparation
• D. showing a documentary on the benefits of a healthy diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Involving adolescents in meal planning and preparation is a more effective strategy as it actively engages them in the learning process. This approach allows adolescents to have hands-on experience, make informed choices, and develop a sense of ownership over their dietary decisions. Lecturing about dangers or showing documentaries may not be as engaging or interactive, making it less likely for adolescents to retain and apply the information provided. Distributing pamphlets can be informative but lacks the interactive and experiential aspect that involving them in meal planning and preparation offers.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

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