Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.

2. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?

• A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
• B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
• C. Have increased caloric intake.
• D. Show improved nutritional status.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.

3. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

4. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked is essential to maintain proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space, causing potential harm to the client. Milking the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the delicate tubing. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest ensures proper drainage by gravity, preventing backflow of fluids, but ensuring the tube is not clamped or kinked takes precedence in this scenario.

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