Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

2. The nurse needs to add a medication to a liter of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) that is already infusing into a client. At what location should the nurse inject the medication?

• A. Medication port
• B. IV drip chamber
• C. Y-site connector
• D. At the hub of the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the medication port. When adding medication to an already infusing IV solution, it should be done through the medication port to ensure direct delivery into the bloodstream without interrupting the primary IV line. Injecting the medication into the IV drip chamber, Y-site connector, or at the hub of the IV catheter can lead to dilution, inaccurate dosing, or potential blockages in the IV line, which can compromise the effectiveness of the medication and patient safety.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
• D. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning finding in a client with a tracheostomy and thick secretions. This can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but does not pose an immediate threat to the airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may require interventions to promote healing but is not as urgent as mucous plugging. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could indicate infection or impaired circulation, which should be addressed but does not pose the same immediate risk as airway obstruction.

4. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer the client a warm blanket
• B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
• C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
• D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.

Similar Questions