Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
• C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
• D. The client reports feeling thirsty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.

3. A client with psoriasis is prescribed topical corticosteroids. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for weight gain and skin thinning.
• B. Assess for increased sensitivity to sunlight.
• C. Monitor for hair loss and excessive bruising.
• D. Report any signs of increased redness or itching.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client with psoriasis is prescribed topical corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor for signs of increased redness or itching. This is because topical corticosteroids can cause skin thinning and increased redness if overused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, sensitivity to sunlight, hair loss, and excessive bruising are not typically associated with the use of topical corticosteroids.

4. A client with end-stage pulmonary disease requests 'no heroic measures' if she stops breathing. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
• B. Ask the client to discuss a DNR order with her healthcare provider.
• C. Consult the ethics committee for guidance.
• D. Discharge the client with no further discussion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to ask the client to discuss a 'do not resuscitate' (DNR) order with her healthcare provider. While the client's wishes should be respected, it is essential to ensure proper documentation and legal protection by involving the healthcare provider in this decision-making process. Documenting the request in the medical record (Choice A) is important but should follow the discussion with the healthcare provider. Consulting the ethics committee (Choice C) may not be necessary at this stage and could delay the necessary actions. Discharging the client (Choice D) without further discussion is not appropriate and disregards the importance of addressing the client's wishes in a respectful and professional manner.

5. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

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