Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

3. Before administering digoxin to a client with heart failure, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure
• B. Monitor the client's heart rate
• C. Assess the client's respiratory rate
• D. Review the client's potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's heart rate. Digoxin slows the heart rate, so it is crucial to assess the heart rate before administering the medication. If the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, the dose should be held, and the healthcare provider should be notified. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring the heart rate in this case. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice C) is not directly related to the action of digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice D) is important for clients taking digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia, but assessing the heart rate takes priority.

4. A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Wong-Baker Faces pain rating scale
• B. Assess vital signs to gauge pain severity
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain
• D. Offer a 1-10 pain scale

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking the client to describe the pain is the most appropriate approach to assess the quality of pain. It provides valuable qualitative information that aids in understanding the nature, cause, and potential management strategies for the headache. While pain rating scales like the Wong-Baker Faces scale and using vital signs can help quantify pain severity, they do not offer specific descriptive details that can give insights into the type and characteristics of the pain experienced by the client.

5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

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