Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has just been prescribed methotrexate. What teaching should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Report any signs of infection, such as a sore throat.
• C. Take folic acid supplements to prevent anemia.
• D. Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sunscreen to prevent photosensitivity.' Methotrexate increases photosensitivity, so clients should be advised to use sunscreen to protect their skin from sun exposure. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B may be important but is not specific to methotrexate therapy. Choice C is also important, but the primary reason for folic acid supplementation with methotrexate is to reduce the risk of certain side effects like anemia rather than preventing anemia itself.

3. Which documentation indicates that activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly?

• A. Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.
• B. Antiembolism stockings removed hourly during leg exercises.
• C. Leg exercises not performed due to antiembolism hose.
• D. Client demonstrates ability to move extremities well.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.' This documentation indicates the correct performance of activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis, as both components are crucial for prevention. Choice B is incorrect because removing stockings hourly is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as leg exercises should be performed despite wearing antiembolism stockings. Choice D is incorrect as demonstrating the ability to move extremities well does not specifically address the prevention of venous stasis.

4. A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.

5. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

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