Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. When monitoring tissue perfusion following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
• B. Observe the color and amount of wound drainage.
• C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
• D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating the closest proximal pulse is essential when monitoring tissue perfusion post-amputation. This pulse provides crucial information about the circulation and perfusion to the limb. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is more related to wound healing assessment rather than tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or infection but is not the most direct assessment of tissue perfusion. Assessing skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is important for skin integrity but does not directly reflect tissue perfusion.

3. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.

5. The home care nurse visits a client who has cancer. The client reports having a good appetite but experiencing nausea when smelling food cooking. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
• B. Provide anti-nausea medication prior to meals
• C. Suggest drinking cold water with meals to reduce nausea
• D. Recommend smaller, frequent meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In some cases, the smell of food cooking can trigger nausea in cancer patients. Cooking food outside reduces the intensity of odors that could trigger nausea, helping the client maintain adequate nutrition. Providing anti-nausea medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the nausea triggered by the smell of cooking food. Suggesting cold water (Choice C) or smaller, frequent meals (Choice D) may not directly address the issue of cooking odors triggering nausea, which is specific to this client's situation.

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