Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A scrub nurse preparing for the first surgery of the day asks if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate. What should the circulating nurse advise?

• A. Proceed with surgery preparation
• B. Extend scrub time to 5 minutes
• C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
• D. Scrub time depends on the type of surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The circulating nurse should advise the scrub nurse to extend the hand scrub to 5 minutes for thorough preparation, especially for the first surgery of the day. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need for a longer scrub time. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not a substitute for a thorough surgical hand scrub. Choice D is incorrect as while scrub time may vary based on the surgery, for the first surgery of the day, a longer scrub time is recommended as a standard practice.

3. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
• B. Monitor for ketonuria.
• C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
• D. Monitor for hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

4. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

• A. Ensure that the IV site is padded and protected.
• B. Limit the client's mobility to prevent dislodging the IV.
• C. Place the IV site on the same side as the seizure activity.
• D. Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

5. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?

• A. The client has been taking multiple medications
• B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
• C. The client's vital signs are stable
• D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.

Similar Questions