Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
• C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
• D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

3. The father of a 4-year-old has been battling metastatic lung cancer for the past 2 years. After discussing the remaining options with his healthcare provider, the client requests that all treatment stop and that no heroic measures be taken to save his life. When the client is transferred to the palliative care unit, which action is most important for the nurse working on the palliative care unit to take in facilitating continuity of care?

• A. Ensure the client's family is aware of the client's wishes
• B. Begin comfort measures immediately
• C. Obtain a detailed report from the nurse transferring the client
• D. Confirm that the client understands the treatment plan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a detailed report from the previous nurse ensures continuity of care and that all relevant information is passed on. This is critical in palliative care, where comfort measures and symptom management are key components of care. Choice A is not the most important action in this scenario, as the question focuses on continuity of care within the healthcare team. Beginning comfort measures immediately, as in choice B, is essential but obtaining a detailed report takes precedence to ensure a smooth transition of care. Confirming that the client understands the treatment plan, as in choice D, is important but does not directly address the need for continuity of care through a detailed report.

4. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

5. A client recovering from a stroke is demonstrating slurred speech. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult the healthcare provider to order speech therapy.
• B. Administer a dose of aspirin to prevent further neurological damage.
• C. Encourage the client to use communication aids, such as writing.
• D. Encourage the client to eat soft foods to avoid choking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client recovering from a stroke demonstrating slurred speech is to encourage the client to use communication aids, such as writing. This intervention can help the client effectively communicate while working on regaining speech abilities. Consulting the healthcare provider to order speech therapy (choice A) is a valid option, but immediate encouragement of using communication aids is beneficial. Administering aspirin (choice B) without healthcare provider orders is not recommended. Encouraging the client to eat soft foods (choice D) is important for preventing aspiration but doesn't directly address the communication issue.

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