HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
- B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
- C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
- D. Hold all medications containing potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.
3. The nurse is preparing an older adult for discharge following cataract extraction. What is the most important instruction?
- A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
- B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
- C. Use direct lighting when reading for 6 weeks.
- D. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a patient following cataract extraction is to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure and potentially lead to complications such as bleeding or dislocation of the intraocular lens. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-operative period. Limiting sunlight exposure and using direct lighting when reading are important but not as crucial as avoiding activities that can increase intraocular pressure. Irrigating the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment is not a standard post-cataract surgery instruction.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?
- A. 100 ml/hour
- B. 75 ml/hour
- C. 60 ml/hour
- D. 125 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.
5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
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