Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. What snack is best for the nurse to recommend?

• A. Baked apples with raisins.
• B. Yogurt with fresh berries.
• C. Avocados and cheese.
• D. Fresh fruit salad.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with severe neutropenia, it is crucial to recommend a snack that is low in bacteria to reduce the risk of infection. Yogurt with fresh berries is an excellent choice as it is not only low in bacteria but also provides nutritional value. Baked apples with raisins (choice A) may not be ideal as the preparation process could introduce bacteria. Avocados and cheese (choice C) may not be the best option due to their potential bacterial content. Fresh fruit salad (choice D) may have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to yogurt with fresh berries.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

4. What symptoms suggest the dosage of levothyroxine sodium is too high in a 26-year-old client with simple goiter?

• A. Bradycardia and constipation.
• B. Palpitations and shortness of breath.
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite.
• D. Muscle cramps and dry skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpitations and shortness of breath. These symptoms suggest excessive thyroid hormone levels, indicating that the levothyroxine dose is too high. Bradycardia and constipation (choice A) are more indicative of hypothyroidism, which occurs when thyroid hormone levels are low. Lethargy and lack of appetite (choice C) are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Muscle cramps and dry skin (choice D) can be associated with various conditions but are not specific to a high dosage of levothyroxine.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with heart failure. Which medication should the nurse question?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Digoxin
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Carvedilol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause fluid retention, which may worsen heart failure symptoms. It should be used with caution or avoided in clients with heart failure. Furosemide (choice A) is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Digoxin (choice B) is a medication that helps the heart beat stronger and slower, often used in heart failure. Carvedilol (choice D) is a beta-blocker that is beneficial in heart failure management. Therefore, Ibuprofen is the medication that the nurse should question in this scenario.

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