Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• B. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.
• C. Assess the client's level of pain.
• D. Monitor the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness (Choice B) is important but comes after ensuring adequate breathing. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice C) is essential but not the priority when dealing with the side effects of morphine. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is also important but not the priority assessment when the focus is on respiratory depression.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. The client reports muscle cramps and tingling in the hands. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to identify the cause of these symptoms?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle cramps and tingling in clients with chronic renal failure are often associated with hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to identify imbalances and manage symptoms appropriately. Sodium, phosphate, and potassium levels are important in renal failure but are not directly related to the symptoms of muscle cramps and tingling reported by the client.

4. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Suggest moving to an assisted living facility
• B. Continue to obtain client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Reduce the frequency of fall risk assessments for this client
• D. Confirm that the client is safe living alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.

5. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
• C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
• D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

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