Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. The nurse prepares to teach clients about blood glucose monitoring. When should clients always check glucose, regardless of age or type of diabetes?

• A. Before going to bed.
• B. After meals.
• C. During acute illness.
• D. Prior to exercising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: During acute illness. Checking blood glucose during acute illness is crucial as stress can elevate glucose levels. This monitoring is essential regardless of the client's age or the type of diabetes they have. Checking before going to bed (choice A) may be important for some individuals, but it's not as universally necessary as during acute illness. Checking after meals (choice B) and prior to exercising (choice D) are important times for monitoring blood glucose, but they are not as universally applicable as during acute illness.

3. Which information is a priority for the RN to reinforce to an older client after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the remainder of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and the test are tiring
• C. Drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every waking hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure the urine output for the next day and promptly notify the healthcare provider if it decreases

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, it is crucial for the client to measure urine output in the next day to monitor for any potential complications, such as kidney issues. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider in case of decreased urine output is essential for timely intervention. While rest and hydration are important post-procedure, monitoring urine output takes precedence due to its direct correlation with potential complications.

4. A client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Absent bowel sounds in all quadrants.
• B. Distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel.
• C. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting.
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel is a concerning sign that suggests a complication such as bowel perforation, which requires immediate intervention. Absent bowel sounds can be expected in bowel obstructions but are not as urgent as a rigid abdomen. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting are common with bowel obstructions but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping are more indicative of bowel obstruction rather than a complication requiring immediate attention.

5. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

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