a client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 7040 what is the rationale for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A pregnant client complains of heartburn. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a pregnant client experiencing heartburn is to eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. This helps prevent the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Eating spicy food can exacerbate heartburn, carbonated beverages may trigger heartburn due to gas, and avoiding fluids after meals does not directly address the issue of heartburn.

3. A client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for a CT scan. A CT scan is essential in confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and guiding further treatment. Administering anticoagulant therapy (Choice A) is important in the management of PE, but it is not the priority intervention in this case. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is beneficial for optimizing oxygenation but is not the priority intervention when a PE is suspected. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important, but obtaining a definitive diagnosis through a CT scan takes precedence in this situation.

4. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

5. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.

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