Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• C. Provide the client with a carbohydrate snack
• D. Assess the client for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.

4. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
• B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
• C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
• D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.

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