a client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 7040 what is the rationale for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client with hypocalcemia is receiving calcium gluconate. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wheezing and stridor may indicate a severe allergic reaction to calcium gluconate, such as anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention. While hypocalcemia can present with decreased deep tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign, these findings do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Decreased bowel sounds are not directly related to a severe reaction to calcium gluconate and do not require immediate intervention.

3. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

4. The nurse assesses a client’s wound. What type of wound requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lacerations, especially deep ones, are prone to bacterial contamination and may require immediate intervention to prevent infection. Abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations are not as likely to lead to immediate serious complications like infections as lacerations.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.

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