Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Give the client a glucagon injection
• B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
• C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.

3. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Palpate the abdomen.
• D. Observe the skin for bruising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.

4. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
• B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
• D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.

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