HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
- A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
- B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
- C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- D. No further tests are needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
3. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
- A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
- B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
- C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
- D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position maximizes ventilation and promotes better perfusion to the unaffected lung. Placing the client in this position helps to optimize oxygenation and reduce pressure on the affected lung. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lying on the left side with the head elevated is essential to facilitate better lung expansion and gas exchange in the unaffected lung, while lying on the right side could further compromise the affected lung by increasing pressure on it.
4. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to
- A. Take the medication with food or milk
- B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
- C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
- D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.
5. A client reports unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. What complication is the nurse most concerned about?
- A. Monitor for signs of a pulmonary embolism.
- B. Assess for signs of dehydration.
- C. Monitor for signs of compartment syndrome.
- D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Unilateral leg swelling following a long flight may indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dehydration, compartment syndrome, and oxygen saturation levels are not typically associated with unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. While dehydration can cause leg cramps, compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with trauma or injury, and oxygen saturation levels are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access