Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

2. When conducting diet teaching for a client on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Yogurt, milk, and pudding
• B. Tea, lentils, and potato soup
• C. Ice cream, broth, and fruit smoothies
• D. Orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or will turn liquid at room temperature. Yogurt, milk, and pudding are appropriate choices as they align with the consistency requirements of a full liquid diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tea, lentils, potato soup, ice cream, fruit smoothies, orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese are not typically part of a full liquid diet. These options either contain solid elements or are not in liquid form, which makes them unsuitable for a postoperative full liquid diet.

3. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
• B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
• C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
• D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

4. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?

• A. Fresh fruit and vegetables
• B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
• C. Bread with honey
• D. Gluten-rich bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.

5. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the mask immediately
• B. Document the assessment data
• C. Increase the oxygen flow
• D. Increase the respiratory rate setting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the assessment data. In a partial rebreather mask, it is normal for the oxygen reservoir bag not to deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. Therefore, these findings indicate that the mask is functioning as intended. Removing the mask immediately is unnecessary as there are no signs of distress. Increasing the oxygen flow or adjusting the respiratory rate setting is not warranted based on the assessment findings, as they are within normal parameters.

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