Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

2. A client asks the nurse for information about reducing risk factors for BPH. Which information should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase physical activity
• B. Decrease alcohol consumption
• C. Reduce intake of dairy products
• D. Avoid caffeine and spicy foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase physical activity. Physical activity can help reduce the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by improving overall circulation and reducing inflammation. While decreasing alcohol consumption and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods may help with symptom management, increasing physical activity is more strongly linked to the prevention of BPH.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
• B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
• C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
• D. The client reports feeling thirsty

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

5. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

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