Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

2. When assessing an IV site used for fluid replacement and medication administration, the client complains of tenderness when the arm is touched above the site. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Cool skin at the IV insertion site
• B. Presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter
• C. Swelling above the IV site
• D. Red streaks tracking the vein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Red streaks tracking the vein." Red streaks indicate phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein that can lead to serious complications like infection or thrombophlebitis. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further damage. Choice A, cool skin at the IV insertion site, could indicate decreased circulation but is not as urgent as addressing phlebitis. Choice B, presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter, may indicate infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter, requiring intervention but not as urgently as phlebitis. Choice C, swelling above the IV site, may suggest localized inflammation but doesn't pose an immediate threat like phlebitis does.

3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the affected leg
• B. Encourage early ambulation
• C. Perform frequent range-of-motion exercises
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return. This intervention is essential for preventing complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging early ambulation is generally beneficial for preventing DVT but is secondary to leg elevation. Performing range-of-motion exercises can be helpful for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention in this case. Applying ice packs to the affected leg is not recommended in DVT management as it can cause vasoconstriction and potentially worsen the condition.

5. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

• A. Difference in the intake and output
• B. Changes in the mucous membranes
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

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