HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?
- A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
- B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
- C. Observe the skin for bruising.
- D. Measure the body temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client with a venous leg ulcer. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to promote healing?
- A. Apply compression therapy to the affected leg
- B. Keep the affected leg in a dependent position
- C. Massage the area surrounding the ulcer
- D. Encourage the client to elevate the leg for 2 hours daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Compression therapy is essential for managing venous leg ulcers as it helps improve venous return, reduces edema, and promotes healing. By applying compression therapy to the affected leg, the nurse can assist in enhancing circulation, reducing swelling, and aiding in the healing process. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can worsen venous insufficiency. Massaging the area surrounding the ulcer is contraindicated as it can cause further damage and delay healing. While encouraging the client to elevate the leg is beneficial, it is not as effective as compression therapy for promoting healing in venous leg ulcers.
3. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
- C. Hypoactivity
- D. A heart rate between 140 to 160
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.
4. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
- D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Carrots
- B. White bread
- C. Bananas
- D. Apples
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.
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