Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

2. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks.
• B. Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or privileges for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

4. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• B. Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate
• C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort
• D. Give antihypertensive medications as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

5. When conducting diet teaching for a client on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Yogurt, milk, and pudding
• B. Tea, lentils, and potato soup
• C. Ice cream, broth, and fruit smoothies
• D. Orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or will turn liquid at room temperature. Yogurt, milk, and pudding are appropriate choices as they align with the consistency requirements of a full liquid diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tea, lentils, potato soup, ice cream, fruit smoothies, orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese are not typically part of a full liquid diet. These options either contain solid elements or are not in liquid form, which makes them unsuitable for a postoperative full liquid diet.

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