Nursing Elites

1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

2. A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
• B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
• C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
• D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.

3. Which medication might the healthcare provider prescribe if the client expresses discomfort with being in the enclosed space of a CT scanner?

• A. Valium (diazepam)
• B. Clozaril (clozapine)
• C. Catapres (clonidine)
• D. Lasix (furosemide)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valium (diazepam) is a sedative that might be prescribed to help a client who feels uncomfortable in the confined space of a CT scanner. Diazepam can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, making the scanning process more tolerable. Clozaril (clozapine), Catapres (clonidine), and Lasix (furosemide) are not sedatives and wouldn't be appropriate for alleviating discomfort related to being in an enclosed space. Clozaril is an antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, Catapres is a blood pressure medication, and Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, so they are not indicated for this situation.

4. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?

• A. involving the client in treatment and decision-making
• B. standing up for what is right for the client
• C. sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information
• D. encouraging the client to advocate for themselves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.

5. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

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