Nursing Elites

1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

2. A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO�. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

• A. 440 ml
• B. 480 ml
• C. 220 ml
• D. 660 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO� (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO�) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

3. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

4. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

• A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
• B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
• C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
• D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

5. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

Similar Questions