Nursing Elites

1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

2. A client with a spinal cord injury is preparing to return home from the rehabilitation unit. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates a need for further teaching regarding autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. "I should raise him to a sitting position."?
• B. "I should check for a fecal impaction."?
• C. "I should look for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing."?
• D. "I should observe whether symptoms worsen."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client develops signs or symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, they need to be addressed immediately. If the family member is not able to relieve them, a healthcare provider needs to be notified immediately. The statement 'I should observe whether symptoms worsen' indicates a passive approach and does not address the urgency of the situation. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they involve active measures to address autonomic dysreflexia, such as raising the client to a sitting position, checking for a fecal impaction, and looking for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing.

3. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

4. The LPN is caring for a 32-year-old female client who is 8 hours post-op after a tonsillectomy. Which of these actions would be appropriate for the nurse to take?

• A. Inform the client that ear pain may occur and is normal.
• B. Provide ice water and a straw to promote easy fluid consumption.
• C. Provide hot tea to soothe the throat.
• D. Monitor vitals every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to inform the client that ear pain may occur and is normal after a tonsillectomy. Referred pain in the ear is common due to related nerve pathways. It is essential to educate the client about this to alleviate concerns. Providing ice water and a straw is not recommended as they may irritate the throat and disturb the healing process. Hot beverages like tea should also be avoided for the same reason. While monitoring vitals every 15 minutes is crucial in the immediate postoperative period for early identification of any complications, it is not the most appropriate action in this scenario where addressing the client's concerns and providing education is key.

5. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

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