a client receives cefazolin sodium ancef via the intravenous route during the infusion the client begins exhibiting signs of an allergic reaction the
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Test Bank

1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

2. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.

3. In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.

4. When a client's postoperative pain seems to be getting worse due to grief over the recent death of their spouse, what should the nurse consider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is developing interventions for grief and loss. In this scenario, the client's pain is not solely sensory but also affective due to grieving over the death of their spouse. It is essential to address the emotional component of pain by providing support and interventions for grief and loss. Referring the client for a psychiatric consult may not be necessary as grieving is a normal response to such a significant loss. Calling the physician for an increased dosage of pain medication or a sedative solely focuses on the sensory aspect of pain and does not address the underlying emotional distress.

5. The LPN needs to delegate a task to the nurse aide who is new to the unit. Which of these is the best option for the nurse to choose in proceeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Delegation is transferring responsibility for a task but sharing its accountability. It is the delegator's responsibility to ensure that the delegatee understands the task before it is performed and to follow up afterward to ensure it was completed correctly and safely. Option B is the best choice because it allows the nurse to observe the nurse aide performing the task without pressure, which can provide insights into the aide's abilities and understanding. This method also allows for immediate feedback and correction if needed. Choice A is incorrect because confirming understanding alone may not provide a complete picture of the aide's competence in performing the task. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests supervising only if needed, which may not provide adequate oversight for a new nurse aide. Choice D is incorrect because supervising the task being performed does not allow for an objective assessment of the aide's abilities and understanding.

Similar Questions

Delegation of tasks to appropriate personnel allows the nurse to:
To assess a client's ankle ROM, which ROM exercises should the nurse have them perform?
The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?
A client with a pleural drainage system to suction has gentle bubbling of the water seal. What should the nurse do?
Which of the following provides the framework for confidentiality and the client's right to privacy?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses