a client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day in assessing adverse effects of the medication which serum laboratory value is mo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. A pregnant client complains of heartburn. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a pregnant client experiencing heartburn is to eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. This helps prevent the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Eating spicy food can exacerbate heartburn, carbonated beverages may trigger heartburn due to gas, and avoiding fluids after meals does not directly address the issue of heartburn.

3. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

4. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.

5. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.

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