Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin level
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

3. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

• A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
• B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
• C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
• D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.

4. A client with hyperkalemia is receiving insulin and glucose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Monitor the client's sodium level.
• C. Monitor the client's calcium level.
• D. Monitor the client's potassium level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. When administering insulin and glucose in hyperkalemia, the aim is to shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, lowering elevated levels. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels closely is essential to prevent hypokalemia or further complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Monitoring sodium (Choice B) and calcium levels (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of hyperkalemia with insulin and glucose.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

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