Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin level
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?

• A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
• C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
• D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.

3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
• B. Take the medication until symptoms disappear.
• C. Report any pain or burning with urination.
• D. Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.' It is crucial for clients to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should not be reserved for severe symptoms only; they should be taken as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the medication once symptoms disappear may lead to a relapse of the infection. Choice C is important but not the most crucial teaching point when compared to completing the full course of antibiotics.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
• B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
• C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.

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