HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
- B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
- C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
- D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
- B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
- C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.
3. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
4. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
- C. Hypoactivity
- D. A heart rate between 140 to 160
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 15 minutes.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
- D. Prepare to administer an antihistamine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management for the client's condition. Monitoring vital signs, administering diphenhydramine, or preparing to administer an antihistamine can be considered after stopping the transfusion and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider. However, the immediate priority is to halt the transfusion and inform the provider.
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