HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
- B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
- C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
- D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.
2. The nurse leading a medical-surgical unit care team assigns client care to a PN and a UAP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP?
- A. Assess a client's pain level post-surgery
- B. Turn and reposition a client with a total hip replacement
- C. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale
- D. Change a postoperative dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Turning and repositioning a client is within the scope of practice of a UAP. This task helps prevent pressure ulcers and assists in maintaining the client's comfort and mobility. Assessing pain level post-surgery requires clinical judgment and interpretation, making it appropriate for a PN or RN. Administering medication like insulin involves critical thinking and potential adjustments based on the client's condition, which is the responsibility of a licensed nurse. Changing postoperative dressings involves wound assessment, infection control, and knowledge of aseptic techniques, tasks that fall under the purview of a PN or RN.
3. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
- A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
- B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
- C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
- D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.
4. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
- B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
- C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
- D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
- B. Upper outer thigh.
- C. Lower abdomen.
- D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.
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