Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
• B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
• C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
• D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Ensure early ambulation
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• C. Maintain strict intake and output
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

3. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?

• A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
• B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
• C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
• D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.

4. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

• A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
• B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
• C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
• D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.

5. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks.
• B. Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or privileges for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

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