Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
• B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
• C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
• D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.

2. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

3. When speaking with a group of teens about chemotherapy side effects for cancer, which side effect would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

• A. Mouth sores
• B. Fatigue
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teens are more likely to be concerned with hair loss when discussing chemotherapy side effects because it is a visible and emotionally impactful side effect for them. While all the listed side effects are important to consider, hair loss can have a significant impact on a teenager's self-image and emotional well-being, making it a key point of interest for this age group. Mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not carry the same level of emotional weight and visibility as hair loss for teens.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
• C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

5. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

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