HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
- B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
- C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
- D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.
2. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?
- A. 83
- B. 85
- C. 87
- D. 90
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.
3. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea.
- B. Obtain a list of the client's cardiac medications.
- C. Perform an ECG to evaluate heart function.
- D. Review the client's dietary intake for possible causes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.
4. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's temperature.
- B. Place a mask on the client.
- C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- D. Determine the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
- B. Upper outer thigh.
- C. Lower abdomen.
- D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.
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