Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
• B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
• C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
• D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

3. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Readjust the traction
• C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
• D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with a venous leg ulcer. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to promote healing?

• A. Apply compression therapy to the affected leg
• B. Keep the affected leg in a dependent position
• C. Massage the area surrounding the ulcer
• D. Encourage the client to elevate the leg for 2 hours daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Compression therapy is essential for managing venous leg ulcers as it helps improve venous return, reduces edema, and promotes healing. By applying compression therapy to the affected leg, the nurse can assist in enhancing circulation, reducing swelling, and aiding in the healing process. Keeping the affected leg in a dependent position can worsen venous insufficiency. Massaging the area surrounding the ulcer is contraindicated as it can cause further damage and delay healing. While encouraging the client to elevate the leg is beneficial, it is not as effective as compression therapy for promoting healing in venous leg ulcers.

5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
• B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
• C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

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