Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
• B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
• C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
• D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Take the medication at the same time every day to maintain consistent thyroid levels.
• C. Expect increased sensitivity to cold as a side effect of the medication.
• D. Increase the dosage of levothyroxine if symptoms worsen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken at the same time every day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels and ensure effective management of hypothyroidism. Consistent dosing is critical for preventing fluctuations in hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because increased sensitivity to cold is not a common side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous and should not be done independently.

3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
• C. Check the client's urine for ketones
• D. Start an insulin drip

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.

5. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?

• A. Yogurt with fruit
• B. Toast with jelly
• C. Crackers with peanut butter
• D. Oatmeal with raisins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.

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