Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you experience a gout attack.
• D. Take the medication with or without food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim) for chronic gout is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps prevent kidney stones which can be a side effect of the medication. It is important for the client to avoid purine-rich foods to help manage gout symptoms. They should continue taking the medication even during a gout attack as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Allopurinol can be taken with or without food, so there is no need to take it on an empty stomach. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as increasing purine-rich foods is not recommended, stopping the medication during a gout attack is not advised, and allopurinol can be taken with or without food.

2. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
• B. Take the prednisone with food.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
• D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

5. The healthcare provider is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The healthcare provider should monitor for the potential of increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas?

• A. Back
• B. Axilla
• C. Soles of the feet
• D. Palms of the hands

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The axilla has thinner skin, making it more permeable to topical medications. Areas with thinner skin, like the axilla, allow for higher systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids.

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