a client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine catapres transdermal patch which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medicati
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI Quizlet

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.

2. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

4. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

5. A client is instructed to take levothyroxine (Synthroid). The medication should be taken:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is essential for the client to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.

Similar Questions

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?
Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?
Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.
Atenolol hydrochloride (Tenormin) is prescribed for a hospitalized client. The nurse should perform which of the following as a priority action before administering the medication?

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