Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) transdermal patch. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I should change the patch daily.
• B. I should remove the old patch before applying a new one.
• C. I should avoid alcohol consumption while using this patch.
• D. I should apply the patch to different sites each time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client should remove the old clonidine (Catapres) patch before applying a new one to prevent overdose. The patch is typically changed every 7 days. Avoiding alcohol consumption is important as it can potentiate the sedative effects of clonidine. It is recommended to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal drug absorption.

2. When assessing the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava) in a client with rheumatoid arthritis, which question should the nurse ask during data collection?

• A. Do you have any joint pain?
• B. Are you having any diarrhea?
• C. Do you have frequent headaches?
• D. Are you experiencing heartburn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava), a medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should inquire about joint pain. Joint pain is a common symptom of rheumatoid arthritis, and improvement in joint pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in managing the condition.

3. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.

4. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Potassium chloride
• C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
• D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

5. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) and is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Consume potassium-rich foods.
• B. Take the medication in the morning.
• C. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
• D. Maintain an adequate fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness. Consuming potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia when taking furosemide. Taking the medication in the morning helps reduce the need for frequent urination at night. Encouraging the client to maintain an adequate fluid intake is crucial to prevent dehydration while on this medication.

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