Nursing Elites

1. The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:

• A. Immediately before swimming
• B. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun
• C. Immediately before exposure to the sun
• D. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun to allow them to penetrate the skin and provide optimal protection. Applying sunscreen immediately before swimming (Choice A) or immediately before exposure to the sun (Choice C) may not provide sufficient time for the sunscreen to be absorbed and offer proper protection. Applying sunscreen 15 minutes before sun exposure (Choice B) is also not ideal as it may not allow enough time for the sunscreen to work effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply chemical sunscreen at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun to ensure it can be absorbed and offer the intended protection. It is important to reapply sunscreen after swimming or sweating to maintain its effectiveness.

2. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Peptic ulcer with melena
• C. Diverticulitis with perforation
• D. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed Humulin NPH insulin. The client asks the nurse how to store unopened vials of insulin. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Freeze the insulin.
• B. Refrigerate the insulin.
• C. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
• D. Keep the insulin at room temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Unopened vials of insulin should be stored in the refrigerator until needed. Freezing insulin can damage it, affecting its efficacy. Storing insulin in a dark, dry place or at room temperature is not recommended as it can lead to degradation of the insulin. Refrigeration helps maintain the stability and effectiveness of insulin.

5. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

Similar Questions