Nursing Elites

1. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
• B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypocalcemia.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects? Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) is a medication used to lower phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It works by binding with dietary phosphate and preventing its absorption. However, this can lead to an excess of calcium in the blood, causing hypercalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of elevated calcium levels, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as calcium acetate does not typically cause hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia, or hypoglycemia.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes diagnostic tests for a client with pneumonia identified on a chest X-ray. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review for implementation to guide the most therapeutic treatment of pneumonia?

• A. Sputum culture and sensitivity
• B. Blood cultures
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABG)
• D. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sputum culture and sensitivity is the most appropriate diagnostic test for pneumonia as it helps in identifying the causative organism, which is crucial for guiding the selection of the most effective antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures (choice B) are more useful in identifying systemic infections rather than pneumonia specifically. Arterial blood gases (ABG) (choice C) are helpful in assessing oxygenation but do not directly aid in identifying the causative organism. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest (choice D) is useful for evaluating structural abnormalities in the lungs but is not the initial test of choice for diagnosing pneumonia.

4. A client has just been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). What should the nurse tell the client about the procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. That informed consent is required
• B. That the test takes about 1 hour to complete
• C. That premedication for sedation may be necessary
• D. That food and fluids will be withheld before the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the ERCP procedure takes about 1 hour to complete. Informed consent is required before the procedure. Premedication for sedation may be necessary as sedation is commonly used during ERCP to keep the client comfortable. Food and fluids are withheld before the procedure to prevent aspiration and ensure a clear view during the procedure. Position changes may be necessary to facilitate the passage of the tube.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

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