a client has been diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation dicand transferred to the medical intensive care unit icusubsequent to an acut
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (Choice A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making Choice D incorrect.

3. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.

4. A child with newly diagnosed leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which would be included in his plan of care by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach family and visitors handwashing techniques. Any client on chemotherapy should have good infection control measures in place, such as handwashing by all who they encounter. Placing the child in a negative pressure isolation room (Choice A) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for a certain condition. Administering prophylactic IV antibiotics (Choice B) may not be part of the standard care plan for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. Avoiding high protein food intake (Choice C) is not directly related to infection control and may not be necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions.

5. When preparing a client for platelet pheresis in the blood bank, which information is most significant to obtain during the history assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant information to gather when a client is scheduled for platelet pheresis is the date of their last platelet donation. Platelet donors can typically have their platelets apheresed as frequently as every 14 days. Knowing the date of the last donation helps ensure the client is eligible for the procedure without risking any adverse effects from frequent donations. Allergies to shellfish may be important for other procedures where anticoagulants containing heparin are used, but it is not directly related to platelet pheresis. The time of the last oral intake is more crucial for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Blood type is significant for blood transfusions but is not the primary concern for platelet pheresis.

Similar Questions

While undergoing hemodialysis, the client becomes restless and tells the nurse he has a headache and feels nauseous. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect?
A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?
Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?
Which of the following should be included in a diet rich in iron?
What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses