NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.
2. When giving an intramuscular injection to an infant, which of the following sites is preferred?
- A. Ventrogluteal region
- B. Deltoid
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Dorsogluteal region
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Vastus lateralis when giving an intramuscular injection to an infant. The Vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is the preferred site for infants as it has a larger muscle mass and is well-developed, making it suitable for injections. The Ventrogluteal region and Dorsogluteal region are not recommended for infants due to their smaller muscle mass and potential risk of damaging nearby structures. The Deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not infants.
3. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?
- A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
- B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
- C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
- D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.
4. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:
- A. Fearful situations
- B. Depression
- C. Delusions
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.
5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?
- A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
- B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
- C. Insert NG tube to low suction
- D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.
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