Nursing Elites

1. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

2. A community health nurse is providing information to a group of older clients about measures to decrease the risk of contracting influenza during peak flu season. The nurse should provide which information?

• A. Clients must stay at home and ask a neighbor or family member to run their errands.
• B. It is best to do grocery shopping and other errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller.
• C. Clients should wash their hands frequently and keep hands away from the face, especially during peak flu season.
• D. Drinking eight 8-oz glasses of fluid each day will reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peak influenza season, older clients should take measures to reduce the risk of contracting the flu. The most effective preventive measure is frequent hand hygiene and refraining from touching the face, as this reduces the transmission of the flu virus. While it is advisable to avoid crowds, the direct action of hand hygiene is more impactful. Doing errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller is a good suggestion to reduce exposure but does not address the direct transmission through hands. Drinking enough fluid daily is important for overall health but does not directly reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

3. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

4. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.

5. The mother of a toddler asks the nurse when she will know that her child is ready to start toilet training. The nurse tells the mother that which observation is a sign of physical readiness?

• A. The child no longer has temper tantrums.
• B. The child can remove his or her own clothing.
• C. The child has been walking for 2 years.
• D. The child can eat using a fork and knife.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Signs of physical readiness for toilet training include the child's ability to remove his or her own clothing. This ability indicates the child has developed the necessary fine motor skills to manage clothing during toilet training. The other choices are incorrect because temper tantrums, walking for a specific period, and using utensils are not indicators of physical readiness for toilet training.

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