HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?
- A. Color and consistency of fluid.
- B. Estimated amount of fluid.
- C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
- D. Time of membrane rupture.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.
2. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
- B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client’s bedside
- C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
- D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.
3. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?
- A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
- B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
- C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
- D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.
4. A multiparous client is involuntarily pushing while being wheeled into the labor triage area. The nurse observes the fetal head presenting at the perineum. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Support the infant as it emerges.
- B. Review prenatal laboratory results.
- C. Obtain fetal heart tones.
- D. Apply suprapubic pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the fetal head is visible at the perineum, the priority is to support the infant's birth to prevent injury. Providing support as the infant emerges helps ensure a safe delivery process and reduces the risk of complications associated with rapid or uncontrolled birth.
5. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
- B. Determine current cervical dilation
- C. Request placement of the epidural
- D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.
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