HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?
- A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
 - B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
 - C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
 - D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.
2. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
 - B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
 - C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
 - D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.
3. A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?
- A. Ambulation with a walking cast.
 - B. Pin and incision care after surgery.
 - C. Use of injections for pain control.
 - D. Administration of growth hormone.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.
4. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
- A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
 - B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
 - C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
 - D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
5. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?
- A. Are you scared?
 - B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
 - C. Tell me what an operation is.
 - D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.
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