Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

2. At 40 weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home and is in active labor. The client feels the need to bear down and push. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain first?

• A. Estimated amount of fluid.
• B. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
• C. Color and consistency of fluid.
• D. Time the membranes ruptured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess as they can provide valuable information about the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to complications such as meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Therefore, assessing the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid is the priority in this situation to ensure timely interventions if needed. Estimated amount of fluid (Choice A) may be important but not as critical as assessing for meconium. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured (Choice B) is less relevant compared to assessing for meconium. Knowing the time the membranes ruptured (Choice D) is important but does not take precedence over assessing for fetal distress indicated by meconium presence.

3. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

4. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
• D. Time of membrane rupture.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

5. The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Assess cervical dilation.
• B. Change the client's position.
• C. Administer oxygen via facemask.
• D. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.

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