Nursing Elites

1. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

3. The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor.
• B. Write up a variance report about the incident.
• C. Instruct the students that this is a violation of HIPAA.
• D. Notify the students' faculty regarding the violation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.

4. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

5. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?

• A. peptic ulcer studies
• B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
• C. genetic testing
• D. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.

Similar Questions