Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child’s peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Reassess the peak flow reading
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Provide oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.

2. A 16-year-old adolescent is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse notes that the client has a severe headache and photophobia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Place the client in a dark, quiet room
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when a client with meningitis presents with a severe headache and photophobia is to place the client in a dark, quiet room. This intervention helps reduce stimuli that can exacerbate symptoms such as headache and photophobia. Creating a calm environment can provide relief and promote comfort for the client while also supporting their recovery. Administering pain medication may be necessary but ensuring a suitable environment takes precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but is not the immediate priority. Encouraging rest is beneficial, but creating an appropriate environment to alleviate symptoms is the initial essential step.

3. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

4. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family?

• A. The mother is a single parent and lives with her parents
• B. The mother states the baby is irritable during feedings
• C. The infant's formula has been changed twice
• D. The diaper area shows severe skin breakdown

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe skin breakdown in the diaper area is significant as it indicates a potential severe issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further complications. Skin breakdown can lead to infections and discomfort for the infant, making it a priority in planning care for this family. The other findings, such as the mother's living situation, baby's irritability during feedings, or formula changes, are important but do not pose immediate risks to the infant's health compared to severe skin breakdown.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

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