Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant’s vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?

• A. Irregular palpable pulse
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Underweight for age
• D. Crying without tears

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant presenting with vomiting, lethargy, and projectile vomiting indicates a potential serious condition. Crying without tears is a sign of dehydration, a critical condition that can lead to life-threatening complications in infants. Dehydration can rapidly worsen an infant's condition, making prompt intervention crucial to prevent further complications. Irregular palpable pulse (Choice A) could indicate a cardiovascular issue but is less immediately life-threatening in this context. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues rather than a life-threatening complication. Underweight for age (Choice C) may be concerning for growth-related issues but does not directly indicate a life-threatening complication like dehydration does.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a child for neurological soft signs. Which finding is most likely demonstrated in the child's behavior?

• A. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction.
• B. Presence of vertigo.
• C. Poor coordination and sense of position.
• D. Loss of visual acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neurological soft signs in children often manifest as poor coordination and a sense of position. These signs can indicate underlying neurological issues and are important to assess in pediatric patients. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with neurological soft signs in children. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction may suggest a cranial nerve dysfunction rather than general neurological soft signs. Presence of vertigo is more related to inner ear disturbances or vestibular issues. Loss of visual acuity may indicate problems with the eyes rather than general neurological soft signs.

3. A 16-year-old female student with a history of asthma controlled with both an oral antihistamine and an albuterol (Proventil) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) comes to the school nurse. The student complains that she cannot sleep at night, feels shaky, and her heart feels like it is 'beating a mile a minute.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. When she last took the antihistamine.
• B. When her last asthma attack occurred.
• C. Duration of most asthma attacks.
• D. How often the MDI is used daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain is how often the MDI is used daily. This is crucial to assess if the symptoms of insomnia, shakiness, and rapid heart rate are related to overuse of the inhaler, leading to potential side effects such as systemic effects of beta-2 agonists.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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