HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.
2. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
- B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
- C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.
3. The practical nurse is providing care for a toddler who has just returned from surgery for a tonsillectomy. Which intervention is a priority in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Offer clear fluids frequently.
- B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breathe.
- C. Monitor for frequent swallowing.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the throat area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring for frequent swallowing is a priority intervention in the immediate postoperative period after a tonsillectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding from the surgical site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as hemorrhage. Offering clear fluids frequently may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may increase the risk of bleeding. Applying a warm compress to the throat area is not recommended as it can increase blood flow to the surgical site, potentially causing bleeding.
4. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?
- A. Clear nasal discharge.
- B. Dry, hacking cough.
- C. Tugging at the ear.
- D. Sore throat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.
5. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
- B. Review the child’s immunization record
- C. Measure the child’s temperature
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.
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