Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

3. The practical nurse is caring for a child with suspected appendicitis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Sudden relief of pain.
• C. Low-grade fever.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sudden relief of pain in a child with suspected appendicitis should be reported immediately as it may indicate a rupture of the appendix, which is a medical emergency. Sudden relief of pain is concerning because it can be a sign of a perforated appendix, leading to peritonitis and sepsis.

4. A 10-year-old child is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate?

• A. Elevated blood glucose.
• B. Decreased serum ketones.
• C. Low urine glucose.
• D. High bicarbonate levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the primary feature is elevated blood glucose levels due to insulin deficiency. Additionally, ketones are increased in the blood and urine. Bicarbonate levels are usually low because of the metabolic acidosis that accompanies DKA. Therefore, the practical nurse should anticipate elevated blood glucose levels as a characteristic laboratory finding in a child admitted with DKA. Choice B is incorrect because serum ketones are increased in DKA. Choice C is incorrect because in DKA, urine glucose is typically high due to spillage of glucose into the urine. Choice D is incorrect because bicarbonate levels are usually low in DKA, not high.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

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