Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

2. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

3. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

4. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

5. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

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