Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever, what is the primary goal of nursing care?

• A. Reduce fever.
• B. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
• C. Prevent cardiac damage.
• D. Maintain joint mobility and function.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of nursing care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is to prevent cardiac damage. Rheumatic fever can lead to complications affecting the heart, making it crucial to monitor and prevent cardiac involvement to avoid long-term consequences. While addressing fever and joint pain are important aspects of care, preventing cardiac damage takes precedence in managing rheumatic fever. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary goals of nursing care in this case.

2. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who is scheduled for surgery to repair a fractured femur. The child’s parent expresses concern about the child being afraid of the surgery. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Children at this age are usually not afraid of surgery
• B. It’s normal for your child to feel scared. Let’s talk about what to expect
• C. You should talk to the surgeon about your child’s fear
• D. Don’t worry, your child will be fine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the child’s fear and providing information about what to expect can help alleviate anxiety.

4. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

5. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

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