Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

2. When visiting a community health clinic, a client's blood pressure is measured at 146/94. What information should the nurse provide the client?

• A. Participate in an exercise program for 6 weeks
• B. Obtain blood pressure daily for 2 weeks
• C. Increase dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids
• D. Begin a low sodium diet immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to begin a low sodium diet immediately. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure levels. By reducing sodium intake, blood pressure can be effectively lowered. Option A, participating in an exercise program, is beneficial for overall health but may not provide immediate impact on blood pressure. Option B, obtaining blood pressure daily for 2 weeks, may not address the underlying cause or provide immediate intervention. Option C, increasing dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids, though beneficial for heart health, may not have an immediate impact on lowering blood pressure compared to reducing sodium intake.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Absence of breath sounds.
• C. Expiratory wheezes.
• D. Productive cough with green sputum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of breath sounds. This finding can indicate a pneumothorax or severe asthma exacerbation, both of which require immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent further complications. Increased respiratory rate (choice A) is common in asthma exacerbations but may not always necessitate immediate intervention. Expiratory wheezes (choice C) are typical in asthma and may not always indicate a critical condition. A productive cough with green sputum (choice D) suggests a possible respiratory infection but does not warrant immediate intervention as much as the absence of breath sounds.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

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