Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

2. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

3. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
• B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
• C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
• D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.

4. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

5. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

• A. A nurse who is pregnant.
• B. A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal.
• C. A nurse with a cold.
• D. A nurse who is lactating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.

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