HESI RN
Community Health HESI Quizlet
1. A community health nurse is planning a program to reduce the incidence of heart disease in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets
- B. Organizing free cholesterol screenings
- C. Holding workshops on stress management
- D. Partnering with local gyms to offer fitness classes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Organizing free cholesterol screenings. This intervention is crucial because it helps identify individuals at risk for heart disease by assessing their cholesterol levels. High cholesterol is a significant risk factor for heart disease, and identifying it early can lead to timely interventions and medical care. Choices A, C, and D, while beneficial for overall health, may not directly address the specific risk factor of high cholesterol associated with heart disease. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets (A) could be helpful in preventing heart disease, but identifying individuals already at risk is a more urgent need. Holding workshops on stress management (C) and partnering with local gyms for fitness classes (D) are important for overall health promotion but may not target the specific risk factor of high cholesterol as directly as organizing cholesterol screenings.
2. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?
- A. Drinks adequate fluids.
- B. Void without difficulty.
- C. Feels less thirsty.
- D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.
3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
- D. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position first. This intervention helps improve breathing and oxygenation in clients with severe dyspnea, including those with heart failure. Elevating the head of the bed reduces the work of breathing and enhances lung expansion. Administering oxygen, obtaining an ECG, and administering furosemide are important interventions in the management of heart failure, but placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the priority to address the immediate need for improved breathing and oxygenation.
4. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?
- A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
- B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
- C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
- D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
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