Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to healthcare services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas
• B. Distributing flyers with information about local clinics
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for medical appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to provide healthcare discounts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas is the most effective intervention to improve access to healthcare services. Mobile clinics directly bring healthcare services to the community, making it convenient for residents to access care without having to travel long distances. Distributing flyers may increase awareness but may not address the barriers to access. Offering transportation vouchers helps with one aspect of access but does not directly provide healthcare services. Partnering with local businesses for discounts may not address the primary issue of physical access to healthcare services in underserved areas.

2. The nurse is conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program for older adults who are at risk for substance abuse. Which data source provides the information the nurse needs to conduct this process evaluation?

• A. client's score on an alcohol screening instrument
• B. results of a urine drug and alcohol screen
• C. most recent community census data
• D. documentation of client education in the nursing record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Documentation of client education in the nursing record provides information on the implementation and progress of the educational program, which is crucial for evaluating its process. Choices A and B focus on individual client assessment rather than program evaluation. Choice C, community census data, is not directly related to evaluating the process of the prevention education program for older adults at risk for substance abuse.

3. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

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