Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to healthcare services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas
• B. Distributing flyers with information about local clinics
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for medical appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to provide healthcare discounts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas is the most effective intervention to improve access to healthcare services. Mobile clinics directly bring healthcare services to the community, making it convenient for residents to access care without having to travel long distances. Distributing flyers may increase awareness but may not address the barriers to access. Offering transportation vouchers helps with one aspect of access but does not directly provide healthcare services. Partnering with local businesses for discounts may not address the primary issue of physical access to healthcare services in underserved areas.

2. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free cancer screenings
• B. lectures on cancer prevention
• C. distribution of educational materials
• D. testimonials from cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cancer risk, making it highly engaging and actionable. While lectures on cancer prevention and distribution of educational materials are informative, they may not offer the same level of immediate engagement and impact as free screenings. Testimonials from cancer survivors, although inspiring, do not provide participants with direct information about their own cancer risk, making them less effective in engaging participants actively.

3. A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube for suction, oxygen via nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips.
• B. Give sips of water.
• C. Provide ice chips.
• D. Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to apply a water-soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa, and nares. This helps in keeping the mucous membranes moist, which is essential for a client with a dry mouth due to the nasogastric tube and oxygen therapy. Choice A, applying a petroleum-based lubricant to the lips, is not suitable as it may not be safe for internal use. Choice B, giving sips of water, is contraindicated as the client has a nasogastric tube in place for suction. Choice C, providing ice chips, is also not recommended as the client needs proper lubrication to address dryness, not cold stimulation.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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