Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to healthcare services. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas
• B. Distributing flyers with information about local clinics
• C. Offering transportation vouchers for medical appointments
• D. Partnering with local businesses to provide healthcare discounts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting up mobile clinics in underserved areas is the most effective intervention to improve access to healthcare services. Mobile clinics directly bring healthcare services to the community, making it convenient for residents to access care without having to travel long distances. Distributing flyers may increase awareness but may not address the barriers to access. Offering transportation vouchers helps with one aspect of access but does not directly provide healthcare services. Partnering with local businesses for discounts may not address the primary issue of physical access to healthcare services in underserved areas.

2. The nurse is conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program for older adults who are at risk for substance abuse. Which data source provides the information the nurse needs to conduct this process evaluation?

• A. client's score on an alcohol screening instrument
• B. results of a urine drug and alcohol screen
• C. most recent community census data
• D. documentation of client education in the nursing record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Documentation of client education in the nursing record provides information on the implementation and progress of the educational program, which is crucial for evaluating its process. Choices A and B focus on individual client assessment rather than program evaluation. Choice C, community census data, is not directly related to evaluating the process of the prevention education program for older adults at risk for substance abuse.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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