Nursing Elites

1. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer smoking history ask for assistance with smoking cessation. A nurse develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of over-the-counter nicotine substitute products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. survey employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program
• B. test the employees' knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products at the end of the program
• C. ask employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start smoking again
• D. design a questionnaire that identifies lifestyle changes contributing to smoking cessation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Surveying employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program provides a direct assessment of the program's effectiveness. This measurement evaluates the actual behavior change related to smoking cessation. Choice B, testing knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products, does not directly measure smoking cessation outcomes. Choice C relies on self-reporting, which may not be accurate or reliable. Choice D focuses on identifying lifestyle changes but does not directly assess the program's impact on smoking cessation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?

• A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
• B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
• C. Dullness over the lung fields.
• D. Increased tactile fremitus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.

4. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

5. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This client has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to multiple factors such as homelessness, substance abuse, and smoking. Homelessness can lead to poor living conditions and limited access to healthcare, increasing susceptibility to infections. Alcoholism and smoking weaken the immune system, making individuals more vulnerable to respiratory infections like pneumonia. Choices A, B, and D do not present the same level of risk factors for pneumonia compared to choice C.

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