Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

3. The community health nurse believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the nurse take first to intervene with this health problem?

• A. join a political action group that focuses attention on the issue in the local news media
• B. partner with a local children's hospital in setting up free 'shot' clinics in the neighborhood
• C. review current epidemiological population data that might document a low immunization rate
• D. call a meeting of citizens to inform them of the importance of having their children immunized

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate initial action for the community health nurse to take when addressing low immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic area is to review current epidemiological data. By reviewing this data, the nurse can gather evidence that documents the low immunization rate in the community. This information is crucial to support the need for targeted interventions to increase immunization rates. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that may be important at later stages of intervention but are not the first step. Joining a political action group, partnering with a hospital for clinics, or holding a community meeting are all valuable strategies, but they should be based on evidence obtained from reviewing epidemiological data to ensure targeted and effective interventions.

4. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

5. The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?

• A. uncertain risks
• B. potential outcomes
• C. priority of solutions
• D. target population data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Before designing an immunization campaign for the children of migrant farm workers, the nurse should review target population data. This includes understanding the specific demographics, health needs, and challenges faced by this population to create a tailored and effective program. Reviewing uncertain risks (choice A) may not provide actionable insights for program development. Considering potential outcomes (choice B) is important but comes after understanding the target population. Evaluating the priority of solutions (choice C) is premature without knowing the specific characteristics and needs of the target population.

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