Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

3. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

• A. Drinks adequate fluids.
• B. Void without difficulty.
• C. Feels less thirsty.
• D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

4. The nurse is assisting with the triage of clients at a large community disaster and finds a man lying on the ground, who states that the blast threw him out of a second-story window. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Logroll the client to his side and assess for back injuries
• B. Perform a complete neurological assessment
• C. Open the client's airway immediately
• D. Place the nurse's hands around the client's neck to stabilize

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opening the client's airway immediately is the priority in this scenario. Ensuring the airway is clear takes precedence over other actions as it is crucial for the client's breathing and oxygenation. Logrolling the client to assess for back injuries may worsen the condition if there are spinal injuries, so this should not be done as the first step. Performing a complete neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority over ensuring the airway is clear. Placing the nurse's hands around the client's neck to stabilize is incorrect and could potentially harm the client, as neck stabilization should only be done if there is a suspected neck injury, which is not indicated in this case.

5. A female client reports to the nurse that her sleep was interrupted by 'thoughts of anger towards my husband.' What type of thoughts is the client having?

• A. Obsessive.
• B. Phobic.
• C. Delusional.
• D. Paranoid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obsessive. Obsessive thoughts are recurring, unwanted, and intrusive thoughts that cause distress or anxiety. In this scenario, the client is experiencing repetitive thoughts of anger towards her husband, indicating an inability to control these thoughts. Choice B, Phobic, is incorrect as phobic thoughts are related to irrational fears. Choice C, Delusional, is incorrect as delusional thoughts involve fixed false beliefs. Choice D, Paranoid, is incorrect as paranoid thoughts involve irrational suspicions and mistrust.

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