Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Positive Homan's sign.
• B. Unilateral leg swelling.
• C. Bilateral calf pain.
• D. Redness and warmth in the affected leg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Redness and warmth in the affected leg. These are classic signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and support the diagnosis. Choice A, Positive Homan's sign, is an outdated and unreliable test for DVT, so it is not the best choice. Choice B, Unilateral leg swelling, can be seen in DVT but is less specific compared to redness and warmth. Choice C, Bilateral calf pain, is not a typical finding in DVT, as the pain in DVT is usually unilateral.

4. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce childhood obesity. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased participation in physical activities
• B. higher attendance at nutrition education sessions
• C. reduced rates of childhood obesity
• D. greater knowledge of healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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