Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

3. When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action should the nurse take first when performing tracheostomy care?

• A. Remove the inner cannula.
• B. Clean the stoma with normal saline.
• C. Change the tracheostomy ties.
• D. Suction the tracheostomy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority action because it ensures a patent airway before proceeding with any other tracheostomy care interventions. This step helps clear secretions and maintain airway patency, which is crucial for the client's respiratory status. Removing the inner cannula, cleaning the stoma, or changing the tracheostomy ties can follow once the airway is clear. Therefore, options A, B, and C are secondary actions compared to suctioning the tracheostomy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
• B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.

5. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

Similar Questions