Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

2. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

3. Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

• A. happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention
• B. honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation
• C. acting out and making up
• D. peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation.' A pattern of behavior known as the cycle of abuse involves these stages. It starts with a honeymoon phase, followed by a buildup of stress, an outburst which may involve violence, and then reconciliation. This cycle is commonly observed in domestic violence situations. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately represent the stages of domestic violence in intimate relationships. Choice A mixes positive and negative elements, while choice C simplifies the complex dynamics of domestic violence. Choice D repeats 'peace and calm' inappropriately and includes 'denial,' which is not typically a stage in the cycle of abuse.

4. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

5. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?

• A. Continue monitoring the vital signs
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Ask the client how they feel
• D. Ask the LPN to continue post-op care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.

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