Nursing Elites

1. A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?

• A. voiding patterns
• B. characteristics of lesions
• C. vaginal discharge
• D. prior history of varicella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.

2. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

• A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
• B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
• C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
• D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

3. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?

• A. Pink frothy sputum
• B. Seizure activity
• C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
• D. Diaphoresis and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.

4. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.

5. What task should the RN perform first?

• A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
• B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
• C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
• D. Assessing a newly admitted client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.

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