NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.
2. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?
- A. Confront the client about the behavior.
- B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
- C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
- D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.
3. A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?
- A. Revising the client's will and planning a visit to a friend
- B. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death
- C. Seeking second, third, and fourth medical opinions
- D. Refusing to follow treatments and stating they won't help anyway
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.
4. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
- B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
- C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
- D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.
5. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?
- A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
- B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
- C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
- D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.
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