Nursing Elites

1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

2. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

3. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

• A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
• B. Stop the transfusion.
• C. Slow the infusion rate.
• D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

4. The client prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hyperemesis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
• B. Assist the client in assuming a left side-lying position.
• C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
• D. Assist the client in flexing the neck forward to facilitate tube insertion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention during nasogastric tube insertion in an awake and alert client is to place them in a high Fowler position (A). Left side-lying position (B) is more suitable for unconscious or obtunded clients. When measuring the tube length, it should be from the tip of the nose to behind the ear, and then from behind the ear to the xiphoid process (C). Assisting the client in flexing the neck forward (D) is appropriate to facilitate tube insertion rather than extending the neck back, which may lead to complications. Proper positioning and measurements are crucial to prevent complications and ensure successful nasogastric tube placement.

5. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.

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