Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of suicide?

• A. An 80-year-old man who lost his wife last year
• B. A 36-year-old woman whose former neighbor committed suicide
• C. A 40-year-old married businessman
• D. A 46-year-old former alcoholic who has been sober for 12 years

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an 80-year-old man who lost his wife last year. Certain factors increase the risk of suicide, such as recent loss of a loved one, in this case, the man's wife. The elderly are a high-risk group due to factors like social isolation, physical health issues, and bereavement. While experiencing a loss can affect anyone, the combination of age, loss of a spouse, and the associated emotional impact elevates the risk significantly. The other choices are not at the highest risk of suicide. A former alcoholic who has been sober for 12 years has taken steps towards recovery, reducing the immediate risk. A 40-year-old married businessman and a 36-year-old woman whose former neighbor committed suicide do not have the same level of immediate risk as the elderly man who recently lost his wife.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

4. A client says, 'I hear a man speaking from the corner of the room. Do you hear him, too?' Which response is best?

• A. What is he saying to you? Does it make any sense?
• B. Yes, I hear him. What do you think he is saying?
• C. No one is in the corner of the room. Can't you see that?
• D. No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response is D: 'No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.' This response acknowledges the client's experience without validating the hallucination. The nurse expresses empathy by acknowledging the client's feelings ('that must be upsetting for you'), showing understanding and support. Choice A focuses on the content of the hallucination, which may inadvertently reinforce the delusion. Choice B validates the hallucination by agreeing that the nurse also hears the man. Choice C denies the client's experience and can lead to further distress by invalidating their perception.

5. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

• A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
• B. A constructive method of accepting reality
• C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
• D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

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