NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which term or description would the nurse use for a client who repeatedly performs ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings?
- A. Obsessions
- B. Compulsions
- C. Under personal control
- D. Related to rebelliousness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compulsions.' A compulsion is an uncontrollable, persistent urge to perform an act repetitively to relieve anxiety. In this scenario, the client's repetitive ritualistic behaviors are indicative of compulsions. Obsessions, on the other hand, are persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that cannot be eliminated with logical reasoning. The behavior is not under personal control because avoiding it increases anxiety, making it a defense mechanism. It is not related to rebelliousness; instead, clients engage in these behaviors to reduce anxiety.
2. When the health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?
- A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation as the older adult is capable of making decisions.
- B. The son cannot waive informed consent for the client since there is no evidence of mental incompetence.
- C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
- D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Health care providers may be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery, if they carry out a treatment without the client's consent. The client's condition is stable, so the family cannot provide consent without her involvement, making option A incorrect. There is no evidence of mental incompetence in the client, so the son cannot waive informed consent, making option B incorrect. While therapeutic privilege may have been accepted in the past, it is unlikely to be upheld by today's courts, making option C incorrect. It is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from clients before proceeding with any treatment to avoid legal consequences and uphold ethical standards.
3. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
4. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
5. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?
- A. Change in femininity
- B. Body image changes
- C. Diminished sexual desire
- D. Slow recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.
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