the nurse explains to a client who underwent gastric resection that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomac
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.

2. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.

3. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

4. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.

5. Which of the following statements to the client's family would be appropriate when preparing to provide postmortem care to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement when preparing to provide postmortem care to the client's family is to assure them that the family member will be properly identified before transportation. This is crucial in ensuring the correct individual is being handled respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the essential aspect of ensuring the proper identification of the deceased before transportation. It is important to allow the family to see their loved one after postmortem care and, if possible, incorporate any cultural practices. Providing comfort and support to the family during this difficult time is also essential in delivering holistic care.

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