the nurse explains to a client who underwent gastric resection that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomac
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.

2. Which of the following is not considered one of the five rights of medication administration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The five rights of medication administration are dose, client, drug, route, and time. The correct answer is 'routine' as it is not commonly recognized as one of the essential rights in medication administration. Choice A, client, is necessary to ensure the right medication is administered to the right individual. Choice B, drug, is crucial to confirm the correct medication is given. Choice C, dose, is essential to ensure the right amount of medication is administered. Choice D, routine, is not typically included in the five rights of medication administration and is therefore the correct answer.

3. The LPN is caring for a 32-year-old female client who is 8 hours post-op after a tonsillectomy. Which of these actions would be appropriate for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to inform the client that ear pain may occur and is normal after a tonsillectomy. Referred pain in the ear is common due to related nerve pathways. It is essential to educate the client about this to alleviate concerns. Providing ice water and a straw is not recommended as they may irritate the throat and disturb the healing process. Hot beverages like tea should also be avoided for the same reason. While monitoring vitals every 15 minutes is crucial in the immediate postoperative period for early identification of any complications, it is not the most appropriate action in this scenario where addressing the client's concerns and providing education is key.

4. How often should physical restraints be released?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

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