Nursing Elites

1. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
• B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is structured based on education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.

2. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

3. A nurse assisting with data collection regarding the client's eyes notes that the pupils get larger when the client looks at an object in the distance and become smaller when the client looks at a nearby object. How does the nurse document this finding?

• A. Myopia
• B. Hyperopia
• C. Photophobia
• D. Accommodation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Accommodation. Accommodation is the process by which the eye adjusts its focus to see objects at different distances. When the pupils get larger when the client looks at an object in the distance and become smaller when looking at a nearby object, it indicates the normal functioning of the eye's accommodation mechanism. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, where distant objects appear blurry. Hyperopia refers to farsightedness, where close objects appear blurry. Photophobia is an abnormal sensitivity to light. Therefore, the correct term to document the finding of the pupils adjusting based on the distance of the object is 'Accommodation.'

4. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

5. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?

• A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
• B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• C. Are you currently dieting?
• D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.

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