Nursing Elites

1. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
• B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is structured based on education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.

2. A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?

• A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
• B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
• C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
• D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.

3. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

4. A nurse notes the presence of variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip and suspects cord compression. The nurse should immediately perform which action?

• A. Insert a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for cord compression
• B. Position the mother so that her hips are elevated
• C. Notify the registered nurse
• D. Perform a vaginal examination on the mother

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip suggest cord compression, the immediate action the nurse should take is to reposition the mother to alleviate the compression. Elevating the mother's hips or changing her position can help shift the fetal presenting part and relieve pressure on the cord. This action aims to improve or resolve the variable decelerations. Contacting the registered nurse may be necessary, but it is not the immediate action required in this situation. Performing a vaginal examination is contraindicated due to the potential risk of further compromising blood flow through the umbilical cord. Inserting a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for the cord is also not recommended as it poses a similar risk of exacerbating the situation.

5. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

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