in evaluating the lab work of a client in a hepatic coma which of the following lab tests is most important
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NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

2. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

3. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

4. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

5. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

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