Nursing Elites

1. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

2. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

3. A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Premature ventricular beats
• D. Heart block

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.

4. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

• A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
• B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
• C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
• D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

5. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."?
• B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."?
• C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."?
• D. "Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.

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