Nursing Elites

1. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

2. The client with schizophrenia has become disruptive and requires seclusion. Which staff member can institute seclusion?

• A. The security guard
• B. The registered nurse
• C. The licensed practical nurse
• D. The nursing assistant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The registered nurse is the correct choice to institute seclusion for a client with schizophrenia. In healthcare settings, only a registered nurse or a physician can legally initiate seclusion. The security guard, licensed practical nurse, and nursing assistant do not have the authority to carry out this action. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

• A. Trendelenburg position
• B. Ice to the entire extremity
• C. Buck's traction
• D. An abduction pillow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

4. A health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant. What should the health care worker do?

• A. Immediately contact child protective services.
• B. Provide the mother with literature about child care.
• C. Consult a therapist to help the mother work out her fears.
• D. Refer the mother to parenting classes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant, the best course of action is to refer the mother to parenting classes. Prevention of child abuse is focused on educating parents on how to care for their child and handle the demands of infant care. By attending parenting classes, the mother can build self-confidence, self-esteem, and coping skills. Parenting classes help parents understand the developmental needs of their children and learn effective ways to manage their home environment. Additionally, these classes provide parents with increased social contacts and knowledge about community resources. Contacting child protective services (choice A) should not be the immediate action as there is no indication of abuse. Providing literature about child care (choice B) may not be as effective as hands-on parenting classes. Consulting a therapist (choice C) may be beneficial, but addressing parenting skills through classes is more appropriate in this scenario.

5. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

• A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
• B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
• C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
• D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

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