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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet

1. How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels. Fiber-rich foods such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans are known to aid in reducing cholesterol by binding to cholesterol in the digestive system and preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect as the question does not specify losing weight rapidly but rather focuses on the benefits of a high-fiber diet, which includes aiding in weight management through promoting satiety and regulating digestion. Choice B is incorrect because while fiber helps manage blood sugar levels, it is not directly related to reducing diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication of diabetes. Choice D is incorrect as a high-fiber diet does not reduce the need for folate; however, it can aid in the absorption of folate and other essential nutrients.

2. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

3. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

4. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial to ensure that the client is not only breathing but also breathing adequately. Choices A and D are incorrect as pulse rate and patient position are not the most critical observations when assessing a client's breathing. Pulse rate is more related to assessing circulation, and patient position is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client is breathing and breathing adequately. Choice B is partially correct as breathing pattern is important, but the most critical observation is the adequacy of breathing. Adequacy of breathing ensures that the client is receiving enough oxygen to support proper body function and is the key focus during breathing assessment.

5. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.

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