Nursing Elites

1. A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus needs education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in this education?

• A. "You can eat anything you want, but avoid foods with sugar."?
• B. "You need to lose weight, so your diet must be controlled."?
• C. "You need a diet and exercise program."?
• D. "You must reduce salt, fat, and sugar intake in your diet."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client newly diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus requires education on managing their condition. Choice C is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of a comprehensive approach involving both diet and exercise. This holistic approach is crucial in managing blood sugar levels and overall health for individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect as it provides misleading information by suggesting that the client can eat anything as long as it doesn't contain sugar, which is not accurate for diabetes management. Choice B is not the best option as it focuses solely on weight loss rather than addressing the holistic needs of a diabetic individual. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests eliminating all salt, fat, and sugar, which is an extreme approach and not a realistic or balanced way to manage diabetes.

2. When teaching a patient with COPD pulmonary exercises, what should be done?

• A. Teach pursed-lip breathing techniques.
• B. Encourage repetitive heavy lifting exercises to increase strength.
• C. Limit exercises due to respiratory acidosis.
• D. Take breaks every 10-20 minutes during exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach pursed-lip breathing techniques. Pursed-lip breathing helps to decrease the volume of air expelled by keeping the airways open longer, making it easier for patients with COPD to breathe out. Encouraging heavy lifting exercises (Choice B) is not suitable for patients with COPD as it can lead to increased shortness of breath. Limiting exercises due to respiratory acidosis (Choice C) is not correct; instead, exercises should be tailored to the patient's tolerance. Taking breaks every 10-20 minutes (Choice D) is not specific to the management of COPD pulmonary exercises.

3. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

4. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

5. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
• B. ondansetron (Zofran)
• C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.

Similar Questions