HESI RN
Biology Practice Test
1. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?
- A. Punnett square
- B. Chi-square
- C. Microscope
- D. None of these
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.
2. Which of the following organelles is known as the cell's transportation center?
- A. Golgi apparatus
- B. Endoplasmic reticulum
- C. Mitochondria
- D. Lysosomes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Endoplasmic reticulum. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis and transport of proteins and lipids within the cell. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for transport. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell, producing energy in the form of ATP. Lysosomes are involved in the digestion and recycling of cellular waste.
3. The term pleiotropy is best defined as which of the following?
- A. A situation in which one gene remains unexpressed
- B. One gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits
- C. Two genes affected by a single allele
- D. A condition in which multiple genes are missing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pleiotropy is best defined as one gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. This phenomenon showcases the multifunctionality of genes, where a single gene can have effects on various aspects of an organism's phenotype. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately capture the concept of pleiotropy. Option A refers to gene expression, not pleiotropy. Option C describes genetic interactions but not in the context of pleiotropy. Option D talks about missing genes, which is unrelated to the definition of pleiotropy.
4. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced from:
- A. 46 to 23
- B. 46 to 33
- C. 28 to 14
- D. 24 to 12
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "46 to 23." In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced by half to form gametes for sexual reproduction. In humans, where the diploid chromosome number is 46, meiosis results in haploid cells with 23 chromosomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the correct reduction in chromosome number during meiosis.
5. What are the nitrogenous bases of DNA?
- A. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine
- B. Adenine, guanine, and uracil
- C. Adenine, guanine, and thymine
- D. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. These are the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA. Adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine pairs with guanine, forming the complementary base pairs in the double helix structure of DNA. Choice B is incorrect because uracil is a nitrogenous base found in RNA, not DNA. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing cytosine, one of the four bases in DNA. Choice D is incorrect because uracil is not a nitrogenous base in DNA, and it also lacks thymine, which is essential for DNA structure.
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