Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

2. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?

• A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
• C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
• D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.

3. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?

• A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
• D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.

4. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?

• A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• B. Do you consume alcohol?
• C. Do you use recreational drugs?
• D. Do you take any prescription drugs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.

5. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?

• A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
• B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
• C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
• D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.

Similar Questions