Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common complication of hypertension?

• A. Diabetes.
• B. Heart failure.
• C. Kidney failure.
• D. Stroke.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stroke. Hypertension can lead to stroke due to the increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, which can result in reduced blood flow and oxygen to the brain tissue. While choices B (Heart failure) and C (Kidney failure) can be complications of hypertension, they are not as directly associated as stroke. Choice A, Diabetes, is not a direct complication of hypertension but rather a separate condition that can be influenced by various factors. However, stroke is more commonly linked to the increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain in individuals with hypertension.

2. A young female client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

• A. Use a second form of birth control while taking this medication.
• B. You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this medication.
• C. You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this medication.
• D. Watch for blood in your urine while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to use a second form of birth control while taking amoxicillin. Penicillin, like amoxicillin, may reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives, making it important to use additional contraceptive measures. The incorrect choices are B, C, and D. Increased menstrual bleeding, irregular heartbeat, or blood in the urine are not common side effects associated with amoxicillin use for a urinary tract infection.

3. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Distended, hard, and rigid abdomen
• B. Clay-colored stool
• C. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder
• D. Bile-stained emesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.

4. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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