HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
2. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?
- A. Blurred distance vision
- B. Limited eye movement
- C. Decreased peripheral vision
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.
3. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Histamine blocker
- C. Bronchodilator
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.
4. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
- B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
- C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with a povidone-iodine solution.
- D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take after applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port is to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic like povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This step is crucial to prevent surface contamination before taking the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section or withdrawing and discarding urine are unnecessary and could lead to potential contamination. Inserting a syringe into the injection port and aspirating the required amount of urine directly from the catheter is the correct method for obtaining the urine sample, but cleaning the injection port cap should precede this step to ensure sterility.
5. During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Heart rate of 57 bpm.
- B. SpO2 of 94% on room air.
- C. Blood pressure of 134/82.
- D. Ankle-brachial index of 0.65.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.
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