HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
2. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
- B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
- C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
- D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.
3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?
- A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
- B. What medications are you taking?
- C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
- D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.
4. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?
- A. Decreased calcium levels
- B. Increased phosphorus levels
- C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
- D. Increased edema in the legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
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