HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
2. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
- B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
- C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
- D. Stage I indicates metastasis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.
3. A client is recovering after a nephrostomy tube was placed 6 hours ago. The nurse notes drainage in the tube has decreased from 40 mL/hr to 12 mL over the last hour. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document the finding in the client’s record.
- B. Evaluate the tube as working in the hand-off report.
- C. Clamp the tube in preparation for removing it.
- D. Assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs. The nephrostomy tube should have a consistent amount of drainage, and a decrease may indicate obstruction. Before notifying the provider, the nurse must assess the client for pain, distention, and changes in vital signs. This assessment is crucial to gather essential information to report accurately. Documenting the finding without further assessment may delay necessary intervention. Evaluating the tube as working in the hand-off report or clamping the tube prematurely are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications if there is an obstruction.
4. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
- B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
- C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
- D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.
5. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
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