Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

2. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

3. In a patient with diabetes, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Dry skin
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, leading to symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in diabetes. Dry skin is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia.

4. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate extremities on pillows
• B. Evaluate edema for pitting
• C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
• D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.

5. A client's urinalysis results show a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet.
• C. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic.
• D. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the client has a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L, indicating dehydration, is to encourage the client to drink more fluids. Dehydration can lead to elevated urine osmolality, and increasing fluid intake can help rehydrate the client. A low-sodium diet is not the priority in this scenario as it would not directly address the dehydration indicated by the high urine osmolality. Administering an intravenous diuretic would further concentrate the urine, exacerbating the dehydration. Obtaining a suction device and implementing seizure precautions are not indicated based on the client's urine osmolality results and would not address the underlying issue of dehydration.

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