Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

2. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
• B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
• C. Wear prescription glasses
• D. Eat a diet high in carotene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.

3. A woman has been scheduled for a routine mammogram. What should the nurse tell the client?

• A. That mammography takes about 1 hour
• B. Not to eat or drink on the morning of the test
• C. That there is no discomfort associated with the procedure
• D. That deodorants, powders, or creams used in the axillary or breast area must be washed off before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid using deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the mammogram. These products used in the axillary or breast area can interfere with the mammogram results and must be washed off before the test. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because mammography typically takes less than 30 minutes, there is no need for fasting before the test, and some discomfort may be experienced during the procedure.

4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

5. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.

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