Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following ethical principles is involved when protecting a patient's privacy and confidentiality?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Beneficence
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Justice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confidentiality is the ethical principle involved in protecting a patient's privacy and ensuring that personal information is not shared inappropriately. Fidelity refers to being faithful to commitments and keeping promises, not directly related to privacy and confidentiality. Beneficence involves doing good for the patient, and justice pertains to fairness and equal treatment, but they are not directly related to protecting privacy and confidentiality.

2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

4. The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum calcium.
• B. Serum phosphorus.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, there is a risk of significant potassium loss, leading to potential electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial in this situation to assess and manage any abnormalities promptly. Serum calcium (Choice A) is not typically affected by vomiting and diarrhea. Serum phosphorus (Choice B) levels are not commonly altered by these symptoms. Serum sodium (Choice D) may be affected in severe cases of dehydration, but potassium monitoring is a higher priority due to its potential for rapid depletion in vomiting and diarrhea.

5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

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