Nursing Elites

1. Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?

• A. Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion
• B. Jewish man considering hospice care for his wife
• C. Seventh-day Adventist in need of a blood transfusion
• D. Muslim man in need of a total knee replacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In Roman Catholicism, abortion is strictly prohibited, so a Roman Catholic woman considering this procedure may experience spiritual distress due to conflicts with her religious beliefs. This conflict can lead to emotional and psychological turmoil, affecting her spiritual well-being. It is essential for healthcare providers to recognize and address such conflicts with sensitivity and understanding to provide holistic care.

2. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

3. After a needle stick occurs while removing the cap from a sterile needle, what action should the individual take?

• A. Complete an incident report.
• B. Select another sterile needle.
• C. Disinfect the needle with an alcohol swab.
• D. Notify the supervisor immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the correct action after a needle stick injury is to discard the contaminated needle safely and choose a new sterile needle to continue the procedure. This step helps prevent potential transmission of infections and ensures the safety of both the individual and the patient. Disinfecting the needle with an alcohol swab is not adequate to address the risk of infection transmission. While completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor are important, the immediate action should be to replace the contaminated needle with a new sterile one to prevent any potential harm.

4. What is the most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a spinal cord injury experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Administer an antihypertensive medication.
• D. Assess the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with autonomic dysreflexia, the most critical action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees (A). This positioning helps reduce blood pressure, which is essential in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (B) is important for overall assessment but not the priority in this situation. Administering an antihypertensive medication (C) without addressing the positioning issue first can lead to further complications. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (D) is not directly related to autonomic dysreflexia and is not the initial priority in this scenario.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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