when taking a health history which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insuffici
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.

2. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

3. A client with hypocalcemia is receiving calcium gluconate. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wheezing and stridor may indicate a severe allergic reaction to calcium gluconate, such as anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention. While hypocalcemia can present with decreased deep tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign, these findings do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Decreased bowel sounds are not directly related to a severe reaction to calcium gluconate and do not require immediate intervention.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing, increasing the client's oxygen flow rate is the priority intervention. This action helps to improve oxygenation and relieve shortness of breath. While bronchodilators and other medications may be necessary, providing immediate oxygen support is crucial. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning the client can assist with breathing comfort but do not address the immediate need for improved oxygenation in COPD exacerbation.

5. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

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