HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?
- A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
- B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
- C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
- D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Elevated blood glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are most concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of hepatotoxicity or liver damage, which could be a result of furosemide (Lasix) use. Monitoring liver function is crucial in patients taking furosemide due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg are within normal ranges for a client with chronic heart failure. An elevated blood glucose level may be expected due to the effects of furosemide but is not as immediately concerning as elevated liver enzymes.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Presence of a new murmur
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid overload, a common issue in heart failure patients. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and potential complications. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg are within normal ranges for many individuals and do not typically require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may be important to monitor but is not the priority when crackles in the lungs suggest fluid overload.
4. A client with liver cirrhosis and severe ascites has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L and is receiving 3% saline IV. Which assessment finding indicates that the nurse should notify the healthcare provider?
- A. The client's serum sodium level is now 130 mEq/L
- B. The client reports a headache and has a BP of 140/90
- C. The client reports shortness of breath and has an O2 saturation of 92%
- D. The client has crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The presence of crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate indicates fluid overload, which can be exacerbated by hypertonic saline. This condition can worsen the client's respiratory status and lead to further complications. The other options do not directly relate to the fluid overload caused by the hypertonic saline. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L is within a normal range for treatment. A headache and a blood pressure of 140/90 are not specific indicators of worsening condition related to hypertonic saline. Shortness of breath and an O2 saturation of 92% could be related to other factors in a client with liver cirrhosis and ascites.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?
- A. Irregular pulse.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Urinary frequency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
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